Saturday, February 2, 2008

Audience Questions for Turretinfan

First, I want to apologize for the delay in giving you your questions. I knew I was supposed to post them yesterday, but I got busy and then I forgot all about it. I give you my word that I didn't read any of the questions you posted for me before I wrote this.

That said, I'm afraid that none of these questions are short and sweet, but here ya go:

Question #1 (by Stephen):

  • Is approaching some sort of middle ground not possible?

    If both sides acknowledge
    1. that faith is the primary reason for the repulsion and expulsion of the demon (I include all evil spirits in that term), and
    2. the biblical evidence shows that water does have some definite symbolic value, and
    3. "God uses the things of the created order to produce supernatural effects in our lives"
    then is it possible for both sides to agree on this:
    • When a Catholic uses holy water in such a way, his faith empowers it, and the water acts as a visible and effective manifestation of that faith, while when a Protestant (or Catholic, for that matter) omits the water, the faith remains sufficient without the visible manifestation of it?

Question #2 (by Rich):
  • My question has to do with your distinction of "Special Miracles". When I first read that argument in particular, my initial response was: "Is it even possible to have a non-special miracle?" The idea of an "ordinary miracle" is, I think, a bit laughable. I think this terminology is misleading, as miracles are all manifestations of the grace of God. Therefore, I don't think we can really get away with putting those cures via shadows or touching of tassels as a whole separate category. No, I think they're better branded as different manifestations of divine grace, and the lack of healing via shadows can simply be explained by the fact that the gifts of the Spirit no longer manifest themselves in that specific way. Otherwise, you seem to be guilty of the same type of fault of which you accuse PC: namely, when an act of divine grace supports your argument, it gets lumped in with the "regular miracles", and if not, then it's "special" and receives the brand "discontinued." Do you agree?

    (PS: If the answer to this is no, then I'd like to see the Biblical proof that "all miracles are equal, but some miracles are more equal than others.)

Question #3 (by Paul)
  • At Lv. 16 the Lord dictates the manner in which the Atonement ritual was to be performed. At Lev. 16:26 , we see that the Lord commanded the priest who made the offering of the scapegoat to Azazel to wash his garments and bathe his body in water immediately afterwards before he could enter the camp. Who was Azazel and why did God require the priest to bathe in water before he could reenter the camp?

With some of these it's a little hard to pick out what the question is, but I didn't really know the best way to revise them so I just gave you the whole thing and you can respond to it in the best way you see fit. I hope that's ok.

Pax Christi,

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